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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Physician Roles (CanMEDS Framework) | - Leader (Manager)
|
Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Sample Questions:
1. A 63-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after he injured his abdomen.
While working on a house, he fell 1 m from a scaffold and landed on a metal pipe. He is clinically stable but reports localized abdominal pain. On examination, he has a 17-cm laceration to his abdomen in the left hypochondrium. The laceration is 4 cm deep, but there is no fascial laceration. Which one of the following is the best next step?
A) Antibiotic irrigation of the wound.
B) Exploratory laparotomy.
C) Primary repair of the laceration.
D) Abdominal computed tomography.
E) Surgical debridement and delayed closure.
2. A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 2-month history of persistent erectile dysfunction. He reports having difficulties maintaining an erection. His last hemoglobin A1c level result was 6.4% (4.8-6.0). He had a negative result on his cardiac stress test 1 month ago. He has been taking stable dosages of citalopram, metformin, and ramipril for the past 2 years. His physical examination findings are normal, and his mood appears euthymic. Which one of the following investigations should be ordered before initiating treatment with sildenafil?
A) Urine culture.
B) No further investigations.
C) Echocardiography.
D) Prostate-specific antigen.
E) Complete blood count.
3. You are working in a busy family practice. Your colleague ' s 48-year-old female patient presents with a 6- month history of fatigue and gastrointestinal symptoms. A recent colonoscopy was normal. Her chart indicates multiple investigations for similar symptoms over the past 2 years, all of which have been non- revealing. Your working diagnosis is somatic symptom disorder. Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Citalopram 20 mg daily
B) Cognitive behavioral therapy
C) Amitriptyline 10 mg at bedtime
D) Risperidone 0.5 mg daily
E) Exposure and response prevention therapy
4. A 45-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of a sore left breast. It has become red and swollen. She was previously well, and her menstrual cycles are regular. She has no history of breast cancer, and she has no children. On examination, she has a red, tender, indurated area in her left breast that has only partially responded to oral antibiotics after 10 days. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Perform a breast biopsy.
B) Start intravenous antibiotics.
C) Proceed with incision and drainage.
D) Change the oral antibiotic.
E) Start nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
5. A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows:
blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7°C. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?
A) Start thrombolytic therapy.
B) Begin anticoagulation with heparin.
C) Immediate surgical repair.
D) Insert an intra-aortic balloon pump.
E) Begin intravenous beta-blocker therapy.
Solutions:
| Question # 1 Answer: C | Question # 2 Answer: B | Question # 3 Answer: B | Question # 4 Answer: A | Question # 5 Answer: E |



